Wednesday, August 10, 2011
Separation of church and state during 18th century europe?
So I'm doing a speech on separation of church and state for my civics cl. I wanna make a reference to the french revolution and all the stuff with the Catholic church but I'm a little rusty on my history. So the people were mostly illiterate and the church would tell the people that the bible said they would got to hell if they didn't pay taxes to the church, right? Then when the enlightenment came around some wanted to translate the bible into the people's language (the vernacular or something?) so they could read it themselves. But the church said no and if they tried anyway they were burned at the stake. And the church was just really currupt. Did I get that right? That all happened in france right? is that's part of what led to the french revolution?
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